Radiographer Grade 2 Previous  PSC Question paper and answer  

Radiographer Grade II Previous  PSC Question paper and answer

Question Paper Code:   82/2022/OL Category Code:        347/2021

Exam:    Radiographer Grade II Previous

Date of Test       01-10-2022

Department       Medical Education

Alphacode          A

Question1:-Number of electrons flowing per second from filament to target in an x-ray tube refers to

A:-Tube voltage

B:-Tube current

C:-Tube emission

D:-Tue capacitance

Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question2:-Melting point of tungsten is

A:-3370 degrees C

B:-9371 degrees C

C:-1000 degrees C

D:-500 degrees C

Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question3:-Range of anode angle in x-ray tubes

A:-1 to 2 degree

B:-30 to 40 degree

C:-6 to 20 degree

D:-90 to 100 degree

Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question4:-Bucky factor indicates the absorption of

A:-only primary radiation

B:-only secondary radiation

C:-scattered radiation

D:-both primary and secondary radiation

Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question5:-Noise which arises which from the statistical fluctuations in the number of x-ray photons absorbed by the intensifying screen to form an image in a film is also called


B:-Dynamic Range

C:-Quantum Mottle


Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question6:-Q-factor of a transducer refers to

A:-purity of the sound wave

B:-length of the time of sound wave

C:-acoustic impedance

D:-purity and length of time of sound wave

Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question7:-SI unit for absorbed dose





Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question8:-The time interval between 2 90 degree pulses in MR image acquisition is





Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question9:-In a CT image, each square in the image matrix is called





Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question10:-‘Characteristics curve’ depicts relationship between

A:-power and amplitude

B:-frequency and wavelength

C:-pitch and distance

D:-exposure and density

Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question11:-The structure known as the ‘pacemaker of the heart’ is

A:-AV node

B:-Bundle of His

C:-Purkinje fibres

D:-SA node

Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question12:-Diabetes incipidus is a medical condition due to deficiency of

A:-Growth hormone




Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question13:-Elevation of medially-rotated eye, abduction and lateral rotation is the action of which extra-ocular muscle

A:-superior oblique

B:-inferior oblique

C:-superior rectus

D:-inferior rectus

Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question14:-Mental foramen is located in which bone ?





Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question15:-A hollow cavity inside a bone is called





Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question16:-Breast is a _______ gland.





Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question17:-Innermost layer of the meninges – the membranous covering surrounding the brain is

A:-dura mater

B:-pia mater

C:-arachnoid mater

D:-grey matter

Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question18:-Forceps major is an anatomical structure in





Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question19:-The terminal branches of external carotid artery are

A:-lingual A and facial A

B:-superior thyroid A and inferior thyroid A

C:-superficial temporal A and maxillary A

D:-ascending pharyngeal A and lingual A

Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question20:-Nerve within the carpal tunnel is

A:-radial nerve

B:-ulnar nerve

C:-median nerve

D:-sciatic nerve

Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question21:-In a conventional photographic film, gelatin and silver halide are components of

A:-adhesive layer




Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question22:-In film processing, the chemical process that amplifies the latent image – by a factor of millions – to form a visible silver pattern is called





Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question23:-Measurement of film blackness is called

A:-linear attenuation

B:-photographic density


D:-exposure gradient

Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question24:-Film contrast depends on all the following except

A:-characteristic curve of a film

B:-film processing

C:-film density

D:-differential attenuation

Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question25:-Maximum slope of a characteristic curve is

A:-film gamma

B:-film alpha

C:-film theta

D:-film delta

Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question26:-Development of unexposed silver halide grains that do not contain the latent image is called


B:-photoelectric effect


D:-automatic exposure

Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question27:-Fixation removes unexposed


B:-silver halide

C:-ammonium thiosulphate

D:-polyester base

Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question28:-Increasing the time or temperature of film development will cause

A:-decreased film speed

B:-increased radiation exposure

C:-increased fog

D:-decreased average gradient

Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question29:-Range of log-relative exposure, that will produce a density within the accepted range for diagnostic radiology, is called





Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question30:-________ reaction occurs when the photon energy and the electron binding energy are nearly the same.

A:-Pair production

B:-Coherent scattering

C:-Photo-electric reaction

D:-Compton scattering

Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question31:-Nuclides with the same number of protons but different neutrons are





Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question32:-Technetium-99 has a half life of

A:-6 minutes

B:-6 hours

C:-6 days

D:-6 weeks

Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question33:-Types of biological effects of radiation are

A:-balanced and unbalanced

B:-reversible and irreversible

C:-stochastic and deterministic

D:-linear and non-linear

Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question34:-In PC-PNDT Act, 1994, which is the form for informed consent for invasive procedures

A:-Form A

B:-Form B

C:-Form F

D:-Form G

Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question35:-The MR equivalent of ‘power absorbed per unit mass’, just like we measure Gy in ionizing radiation, is

A:-Tesla (T)

B:-Thermal Index (TI)

C:-Specific Absorption Rate (SAR)

D:-Mechanical Index (MI)

Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question36:-In MRI, the abbreviation TE in a pulse-echo sequence, stands for

A:-tesla echo

B:-thermal efficiency

C:-time to exit

D:-time to echo

Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question37:-The ___________ is the thickness of a specific substance that, when introduced in the path of a beam of radiation, reduces exposure rate by half.

A:-Attenuation Difference (AD)

B:-Half-Life Thickness (HLT)

C:-Half-Value Layer (HVL)

D:-None of these

Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question38:-To differentiate between calcification and haemorrhage, the sequence used in MRI is

A:-Diffusion-weighted image

B:-MR spectroscopy

C:-Susceptibility-weighted imaging

D:-MR perfusion

Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question39:-Active CSF leak is confirmed with _________ investigation.

A:-CT fistulogram

B:-CT enterography

C:-CT cisternogram

D:-CT angiogram

Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question40:-Transducer crystals in the USG probe are made up of

A:-Piezoelectric crystals

B:-LCD crystals

C:-Thermocouple crystals

D:-Strain guage

Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question41:-MRI sequence for detecting microscopic fat content in the tissue is

A:-Diffusion-weighted imaging

B:-functional MRI

C:-in-phase and out-of-phase sequence

D:-MR contrast

Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question42:-The appropriate attitude towards a patient seeking assistance in a hospital setting would be





Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question43:-In female patients presenting for ionizing radiation-based investigations, the most important clinical history to be elicited is

A:-financial history

B:-surgical history

C:-menstrual history

D:-medical history

Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question44:-All these are ionizing radiation except


B:-gamma ray

C:-beta ray

D:-ultra-violet radiation

Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question45:-The 3 basic principles of radiation protection

A:-sensitisation, standardisation, subsidisation

B:-jurisdiction, optimization, legalisation

C:-justification, optimization, dose-limitation

D:-sustainability, compatibility, longevity

Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question46:-What is the relationship between the radiation dose and distance ? Doubling distance will decrease dose by





Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question47:-AERB stands for

A:-Applied and Essential Radiology Background

B:-Assisted and Enhanced Radiation Barrier

C:-Applied Exposure Regulatory Board

D:-Atomic Energy Regulatory Board

Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question48:-The absolute density in CT is measured in __________ units.





Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question49:-Radiation -induced cancer and genetic effects are considered ______ biological effects of radiation.





Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question50:-In ante-natal pregnancy scanning, a dedicated fetal anomaly scan is done at ______ gestational age.

A:-5-6 weeks

B:-18-20 weeks

C:-28-32 weeks

D:-38-40 weeks

Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question51:-Half-life (T1/2) of a radioactive substance is related to the average life (𝑇a) by which equation ?

A:-𝑇1/2 = 1.44𝑇a

B:-𝑇1/2 = 1.44 + 𝑇a

C:-𝑇1/2 = 𝑇a /1.44

D:-𝑇1/2 = 𝑇a − 1.44

Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question52:-X-ray quantity is the

A:-Energy of the X-ray beam

B:-Number of X-ray photons in the X-ray beam

C:-Energy of electrons hitting the target

D:-All of the above

Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question53:-Which of the following is not a gas filled detector ?

A:-Scintillation detector

B:-Proportional counter

C:-GM detector

D:-Ionization chamber

Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question54:-Track of ionization produced by secondary electrons are known as

A:-Bragg peak

B:-Delta rays

C:-Alpha rays

D:-Stopping power

Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question55:-Tissue Air Ratio (TAR) is independent of


B:-Field size

C:-Beam energy


Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question56:-Fluoroscopy images can be recorded by means of

A:-Spot film cassette

B:-Photo spot films

C:-Digital recording

D:-All of the above

Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question57:-The line passing through points of equal dose is known as



C:-Isodose curve

D:-Build up depth

Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question58:-The measure of total energy absorbed in treated volume is

A:-Effective dose

B:-Equivalent dose

C:-Integral dose

D:-None of the above

Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question59:-The unit of absorbed dose is





Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question60:-In the Build Up region, KERMA is _________ absorbed dose.

A:-Greater than

B:-Equal to

C:-Smaller than

D:-Twice the

Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question61:-The half-life of Gold 198 (Au-198) is

A:-6.02 hrs

B:-73.8 days

C:-17 days

D:-2.7 days

Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question62:-The total activity of all radioisotopes discharged into the sewage in one year by any institution shall not exceed

A:-1 Ci

B:-2 Ci

C:-5 Ci

D:-10 Ci

Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question63:-Tc-99 m emits gamma energy of

A:-159 keV

B:-80 keV

C:-364 keV

D:-140 keV

Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question64:-Which of the following is the AERB safety directive describes the dose limits for exposures from ionizing radiations for workers and the members of the public

A:-AERB Directive No. 01/2011

B:-AERB Directive No. 02/2011

C:-AERB Directive No. 01/2021

D:-AERB Directive No. 02/2021

Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question65:-What is the minimum primary wall thickness of a typical Telecobalt bunker ?

A:-190 cm

B:-220 cm

C:-130 cm

D:-45 cm

Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question66:-1 TVT = __________ HVT.





Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question67:-Lateral wall of Nasopharynx contain all except

A:-Torus tubarius

B:-Fossa of Rosemuller

C:-Basilar portion of sphenoid

D:-Pharyngo tympanic tube

Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question68:-Bimodal age distribution is found in which Carcinoma of head and neck ?

A:-Cancer oropharynx

B:-Cancer nasopharynx

C:-Cancer larynx

D:-Cancer oral cavity

Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question69:-Acinic cell carcinoma salivary gland arises from

A:-Mucus producing cells and cells of intermediate type

B:-Myoepithelial cells

C:-Excretory duct cells

D:-Terminal ducts & Intercalated ducts

Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question70:-In AJCC staging of head and neck tumors, which carcinoma staging takes into consideration the human papilloma virus status

A:-Cancer oropharynx

B:-Cancer nasopharynx

C:-Cancer larynx

D:-None of the above

Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question71:-In cervical carcinoma, presence of hydronephrosis is staged as

A:-Stage II A

B:-Stage II B

C:-Stage III A

D:-Stage III B

Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question72:-First site of distant metastasis in cervical cancer is


B:-Abdominal cavity



Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question73:-Breast anatomically extends cranio-caudally from

A:-First rib to sixth rib anteriorly

B:-First rib to fifth rib anteriorly

C:-Second rib to sixth rib anteriorly

D:-Second rib to fifth rib anteriorly

Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question74:-Well established risk factors in development of cancer breast includes all except

A:-Early menarche

B:-Germ line mutation

C:-Obesity after menopause

D:-Early menopause

Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question75:-R-S cells are signature neoplastic cells of

A:-Classic non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma

B:-Classic Hodgkin’s lymphoma

C:-Chronic myeloid leukemia

D:-Acute myeloblastic leukemia

Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question76:-Rectum is approximately ___________ in length.

A:-8 to 11 cm

B:-10 to 13 cm

C:-12 to 15 cm

D:-15 to 18 cm

Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question77:-Cancer registry in India under ICMR include

A:-Population based and community based registry

B:-Population based and hospital based registry

C:-Community based and clinic based registry

D:-Population based registries only

Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question78:-Common ethical issues directly affecting Oncology patients are all except

A:-Electronic record keeping

B:-Financial relationship into industry sponsors

C:-Genetic counseling

D:-Plagiarism and fabrication

Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question79:-Patient counseling before radiation planning and start of treatment should include all except

A:-Informed consent duly signed

B:-Giving educational brochure on instructions, common side effects and their initial management

C:-Both of the above

D:-None of the above

Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question80:-Radiation induced salivary dysfunction can be prevented by

A:-Limiting mean dose to parotid glands to 45 Gy

B:-Amifostine therapy

C:-Both of the above

D:-None of the above

Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question81:-Intensity modulated radiotherapy includes _________ before plan acceptance.

A:-Inverse planning and defining constraints

B:-Forward planning and selecting beam parameters

C:-Optimization of treatment design

D:-Both 1 and 3

Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question82:-Which volume takes into consideration the organ motion and setup variations in IMRT planning ?

A:-Gross tumor volume

B:-Clinical target volume

C:-Planning target volume

D:-Planning risk volume

Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question83:-The rationale for _________ fractionation is that reduction of overall treatment time decreases the opportunity for tumor cell regeneration.

A:-Accelerated fractionation radiotherapy

B:-Hyper fractionation radiotherapy

C:-Conventional fractionation radiotherapy

D:-Both 1 and 2

Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question84:-Biological effect of concurrent chemo radiation include all except

A:-Shift of cell survival curves towards higher cell killing levels

B:-A decrease in tumor mass and re-oxygenation

C:-Increased apoptosis

D:-Favorer DNA repair

Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question85:-Spinal cord tolerance in radiotherapy

A:-35 Gy

B:-45 Gy

C:-55 Gy

D:-65 Gy

Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question86:-SBRT is

A:-Systemic Based Radiotherapy

B:-Stereotactic Based Radiotherapy

C:-Stereotactic Body Radiotherapy

D:-Systemic Body Radiotherapy

Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question87:-All can be used in cancer treatment except

A:-Proton therapy

B:-Neutron therapy

C:-Carbon ions

D:-Nitrogen ions

Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question88:-HDR (High Dose Rate) brachytherapy is

A:->12 Gy/hour

B:->10 Gy/hour

C:->20 Gy/hour

D:->22 Gy/hour

Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question89:-Brachytherapy technique is commonly used in all except

A:-Cancer Cervix

B:-Cancer Prostate

C:-Cancer Buccal Mucosa

D:-Cancer Brain

Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question90:-ICRU (International Commission on Radiation Units and Measurements) 38 defines





Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question91:-Radiopharmaceuticals include all except





Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question92:-In nasopharyngeal carcinoma, gross disease is given a total dose of

A:-80 Gy

B:-70 Gy

C:-60 Gy

D:-54 Gy

Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question93:-Left parotid gland radiation treatment is conventionally planned in which treatment position ?

A:-Supine with neck extended

B:-Supine with neck flexed

C:-Supine with head turned to left

D:-Supine with head turned to right

Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question94:-Level IV neck node include

A:-Upper deep cervical lymph nodes

B:-Lower deep cervical lymph nodes

C:-Middle deep cervical lymph nodes

D:-None of the above

Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question95:-Palliative radiotherapy common schedules to spine metastasis include

A:-50 Gy/25 fractions/5 weeks

B:-65 Gy/20 fractions/5 weeks

C:-30 Gy/10 fractions/2 weeks

D:-None of the above

Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question96:-In breast planning, brachial plexus dose volume constraints is kept at

A:-maximum 54 Gy

B:-Mean dose 54 Gy

C:-Maximum 44 Gy

D:-Mean dose 44 Gy

Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question97:-Neo adjuvant radiotherapy is used for down staging and functional preservation in treatment of

A:-astrocytoma brain

B:-cancer lung

C:-cancer rectum

D:-none of the above

Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question98:-Which chemotherapy drug is not used in concurrent chemo radiotherapy for anal cancer ?


B:-Mitomycin C



Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question99:-Early vocal cord cancers can be treated by all except

A:-Radical radiotherapy

B:-Trans oral laser micro surgery

C:-Trans oral robotic surgery

D:-Total laryngectomy

Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question100:-Superior border in cancer cervix, external beam radiotherapy planning is taken as

A:-L2-L3 vertebral inter space

B:-L3-L4 vertebral inter space

C:-L5-S1 vertebral inter space

D:-None of the above

Correct Answer:- Option-B&